The graph clearly shows that UK productivity (I'm assuming using the std measure of Productivity = GDP per labour hour worked) has fallen against DE and F. What it doesn't do is explain why. Do you know why it has declined? Is it due to an EU conspiracy to sandbag the plucky UK worker? Something to do with an EU superstate ad red tape? Due to UK management incompetence? Due to lack of investment in UK infrastructure post WW2? Due to our prioritisation of services over manufacturing? Etc. What do you think? I think the answers lie much closer to home.
Having been in a similar position, I'm tempted to agree! However, the cold hard economic numbers do not support the stereotype (see Exige's graph)
Junkers replacement has been approved in the eu parliament yesterday evening Currently with the U.K. mep's still there, there are 751 meps so she needed to get past the figure of 374 votes. She got 383 votes. The most powerful political figure in europe has been elected to the post by 9 votes past the line. In numbers, nearly half of all euro meps do not think she is the right candidate, so much for a united europe going forward
All the answers lie much closer to home yes, but as a whole the EU council are going very much in the wrong direction for Most people’s liking. I guess you are beginning to realise that much
So, if we sack 20% of the workers, and get the rest to work 25% harder, the UK would be top of the chart?
I have wondered, as you have mentioned services, is this the problem. We still make stuff and export in the billions but we are moving more into the expertise rather than the making and I wonder if that is seeing the traditional scoring/assessment, has yet to devise a way of assessing that????
I was thinking more if you produce a car say, you can measure the productivity. If you design, create some more technical where there is much more r&d, out of hours work etc etc, do we have the monitoring systems to bring that in a comparable way?
The std GDP calculation is just as applicable to services as it is to manufacturing. The output of an hours work in a service environment should lead to an income...which feeds in to GDP....which supports the calculation. Should be inclusive of R&D and all other costs. At the end of the day a service output is just as much a "product" as a car.....it's just less obviously tangible and sometimes harder to visualise - ie an insurance contract or a share trade v a Nissan Micra or a ship etc Studies in to the productivity gap (we have one with most developed nations, not just EU countries) often conclude that we invest less in infrastructure and technology (particularly on the longer term) that helps support productivity gains (ie automation that helps us produce more per man hour, improved road/rail that reduces journey times for goods etc). The Germans and Japanese (on the long term) have been very good at this. China is catching up very quickly (and is also supported by lower salary costs etc), Its the joined up thinking in Government and industry that we are less adept at.
I agree with you in a way, but I mentioned that based on a variety of jobs I've had One year I took a summer job which was manual work, I turned up 8-4, did my job, went home. My achievement was calculable. Another roll was leading a team of industrial engineers and yet the amount of hours I did , and they probably did too, out of the office, at home and at various "non working" hours was immense and yet many of those non office hours would not have been factured in as hard as you try because you were paid by the project and not by the work hours involved I have had some employers who have said we do not pay overtime at your senior grade and said both of the following at various times, "it's expected you will put in free hours" or "take the hours extra you put in as leave or time in leau" but it's those unclaimed hours, which seem more applicable to the skills the U.K. seems to be moving towards, that are unlikely to be collated
I wonder what political point the graph was intending to make as the data doesn’t seem to reflect the 2018 GDPs of Germany, France and the UK as derived by IMF, World Bank and UN (As listed in Wicki). https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lis...ta_nominal_GDP_for_countries_and_dependencies These show Germany as being ahead of the UK, but France is similar or lower, not 20% higher?
